- Joined
- Feb 27, 2024
- Messages
- 42
- Thread Author
- #1
Blackpill makes no prescriptive judgments on what you ought to do with its findings - it's wholly descriptive and not ideological - it doesn't endorse a fatalistic philosophy at all.
Why is the whitepill then considered the inverse of the blackpill, or a "pill" at all? It's a misnomer, as it doesn't actually provide you with any new knowledge - the blackpill was created to be beyond "redpill" after grifters hijacked the term. So naturally, whitepill ought to be the same way. But it isn't.
Why is the whitepill then considered the inverse of the blackpill, or a "pill" at all? It's a misnomer, as it doesn't actually provide you with any new knowledge - the blackpill was created to be beyond "redpill" after grifters hijacked the term. So naturally, whitepill ought to be the same way. But it isn't.